HAM Toolkit/HAM Toolkit.iso/text/arrl/tech_2.new

Text File | 1993-12-01 | 46KB | 1,709 lines

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Continued from file TECH-1.NEW...

SUBELEMENT T4  AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES  [4 exam questions - 4
groups]

T4A  Electrical wiring, including switch location, dangerous
voltages and currents.

T4A01 (C)
Where should the green wire in a three-wire AC line cord be
connected in a power supply?
A.  To the fuse
B.  To the "hot" side of the power switch
C.  To the chassis
D.  To the white wire

T4A02 (D)
Where should the black (or red) wire in a three-wire AC line cord
be connected in a power supply?
A.  To the white wire
B.  To the green wire
C.  To the chassis
D.  To the fuse

T4A03 (B)
Where should the white wire in a three-wire AC line cord be
connected in a power supply?
A.  To the side of the power transformer's primary winding that
has a fuse
B.  To the side of the power transformer's primary winding that
does not have a fuse
C.  To the chassis
D.  To the black wire

T4A04 (D)
What document is used by almost every US city as the basis for
electrical safety requirements for power wiring and antennas?
A.  The Code of Federal Regulations
B.  The Proceedings of the IEEE
C.  The ITU Radio Regulations
D.  The National Electrical Code

T4A05 (C)
What document would you use to see if you comply with standard
electrical safety rules when building an amateur antenna?
A.  The Code of Federal Regulations
B.  The Proceedings of the IEEE
C.  The National Electrical Code
D.  The ITU Radio Regulations

T4A06 (D)
Where should fuses be connected on a mobile transceiver's DC
power cable?
A.  Between the red and black wires
B.  In series with just the black wire
C.  In series with just the red wire
D.  In series with both the red and black wires

T4A07 (B)
Why is the retaining screw in one terminal of a wall outlet made
of brass while the other one is silver colored?
A.  To prevent corrosion
B.  To indicate correct wiring polarity
C.  To better conduct current
D.  To reduce skin effect

T4A08 (A)
How much electrical current flowing through the human body is
usually fatal?
A.  As little as 1/10 of an ampere
B.  Approximately 10 amperes
C.  More than 20 amperes
D.  Current flow through the human body is never fatal

T4A09 (A)
Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount
of electrical current?
A.  The heart
B.  The brain
C.  The liver
D.  The lungs

T4A10 (A)
How much electrical current flowing through the human body is
usually painful?
A.  As little as 1/500 of an ampere
B.  Approximately 10 amperes
C.  More than 20 amperes
D.  Current flow through the human body is never painful

T4A11 (A)
What is the minimum voltage which is usually dangerous to humans?
A.  30 volts
B.  100 volts
C.  1000 volts
D.  2000 volts

T4A12 (C)
Where should the main power switch for a high-voltage power
supply be located?
A.  Inside the cabinet, to kill the power if the cabinet is
opened
B.  On the back side of the cabinet, out of sight
C.  Anywhere that can be seen and reached easily
D.  A high-voltage power supply should not be switch-operated

T4A13 (B)
What precaution should you take when leaning over a power
amplifier?
A.  Take your shoes off
B.  Watch out for loose jewelry contacting high voltage
C.  Shield your face from the heat produced by the power supply
D.  Watch out for sharp edges which may snag your clothing

T4A14 (C)
What is an important safety rule concerning the main electrical
box in your home?
A.  Make sure the door cannot be opened easily
B.  Make sure something is placed in front of the door so no one
will be able to get to it easily
C.  Make sure others in your home know where it is and how to
shut off the electricity
D.  Warn others in your home never to touch the switches, even in
an emergency

T4A15 (B)
What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by
high voltage?
A.  Run from the area so you won't be burned too
B.  Turn off the power, call for emergency help and give CPR if
needed
C.  Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage
D.  Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from
the high voltage on their own, then try to help

T4B  Meters, including volt, amp, multi, peak-reading, RF watt
and placement, and ratings of fuses and switches.

T4B01 (B)
How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
A.  In series with the circuit
B.  In parallel with the circuit
C.  In quadrature with the circuit
D.  In phase with the circuit

T4B02 (C)
How can the range of a voltmeter be increased?
A.  By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
B.  By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test
C.  By adding resistance in series with the meter, between the
meter and the circuit under test
D.  By adding resistance in parallel with the meter, between the
meter and the circuit under test

T4B03 (A)
What happens inside a voltmeter when you switch it from a lower
to a higher voltage range?
A.  Resistance is added in series with the meter
B.  Resistance is added in parallel with the meter
C.  Resistance is reduced in series with the meter
D.  Resistance is reduced in parallel with the meter

T4B04 (A)
How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
A.  In series with the circuit
B.  In parallel with the circuit
C.  In quadrature with the circuit
D.  In phase with the circuit

T4B05 (D)
How can the range of an ammeter be increased?
A.  By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
B.  By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test
C.  By adding resistance in series with the meter
D.  By adding resistance in parallel with the meter

T4B06 (D)
What does a multimeter measure?
A.  SWR and power
B.  Resistance, capacitance and inductance
C.  Resistance and reactance
D.  Voltage, current and resistance

T4B07 (A)
Where should an RF wattmeter be connected for the most accurate
readings of transmitter output power?
A.  At the transmitter output connector
B.  At the antenna feed point
C.  One-half wavelength from the transmitter output
D.  One-half wavelength from the antenna feed point

T4B08 (B)
At what line impedance do most RF wattmeters usually operate?
A.  25 ohms
B.  50 ohms
C.  100 ohms
D.  300 ohms

T4B09 (A)
What does a directional wattmeter measure?
A.  Forward and reflected power
B.  The directional pattern of an antenna
C.  The energy used by a transmitter
D.  Thermal heating in a load resistor

T4B10 (B)
If a directional RF wattmeter reads 90 watts forward power and 10
watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output
power?
A.  10 watts
B.  80 watts
C.  90 watts
D.  100 watts

T4B11 (C)
If a directional RF wattmeter reads 96 watts forward power and 4
watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output
power?
A.  80 watts
B.  88 watts
C.  92 watts
D.  100 watts

T4C  Marker generator, crystal calibrator, signal generators and
impedance-match indicator.

T4C01 (A)
What is a marker generator?
A.  A high-stability oscillator that generates reference signals
at exact frequency intervals
B.  A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a range of
frequencies
C.  A low-stability oscillator used to inject a signal into a
circuit under test
D.  A high-stability oscillator which can produce a wide range of
frequencies and amplitudes

T4C02 (A)
How is a marker generator used?
A.  To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver
B.  To calibrate the volume control on a receiver
C.  To test the amplitude linearity of a transmitter
D.  To test the frequency deviation of a transmitter

T4C03 (D)
What device is used to inject a frequency calibration signal into
a receiver?
A.  A calibrated voltmeter
B.  A calibrated oscilloscope
C.  A calibrated wavemeter
D.  A crystal calibrator

T4C04 (B)
What frequency standard may be used to calibrate the tuning dial
of a receiver?
A.  A calibrated voltmeter
B.  Signals from WWV and WWVH
C.  A deviation meter
D.  A sweep generator

T4C05 (C)
How might you check the accuracy of your receiver's tuning dial?
A.  Tune to the frequency of a shortwave broadcasting station
B.  Tune to a popular amateur net frequency
C.  Tune to one of the frequencies of station WWV or WWVH
D.  Tune to another amateur station and ask what frequency the
operator is using

T4C06 (C)
What device produces a stable, low-level signal that can be set
to a desired frequency?
A.  A wavemeter
B.  A reflectometer
C.  A signal generator
D.  An oscilloscope

T4C07 (B)
What is an RF signal generator used for?
A.  Measuring RF signal amplitudes
B.  Aligning tuned circuits
C.  Adjusting transmitter impedance-matching networks
D.  Measuring transmission-line impedances

T4C08 (D)
What device can measure an impedance mismatch in your antenna
system?
A.  A field-strength meter
B.  An ammeter
C.  A wavemeter
D.  A reflectometer

T4C09 (A)
Where should a reflectometer be connected for best accuracy when
reading the impedance match between an antenna and its feed line?
A.  At the antenna feed point
B.  At the transmitter output connector
C.  At the midpoint of the feed line
D.  Anywhere along the feed line

T4C10  (A)
If you use a 3-30 MHz RF power meter for VHF, how accurate will
its readings be?
A.  They will not be accurate
B.  They will be accurate enough to get by
C.  If it properly calibrates to full scale in the set position,
they may be accurate
D.  They will be accurate providing the readings are multiplied
by 4.5

T4C11 (C)
If you use a 3-30 MHz SWR meter for VHF, how accurate will its
readings be?
A.  They will not be accurate
B.  They will be accurate enough to get by
C.  If it properly calibrates to full scale in the set position,
they may be accurate
D.  They will be accurate providing the readings are multiplied
by 4.5

T4D  Dummy antennas, S-meter, exposure of the human body to RF.

T4D01 (D)
What device should be connected to a transmitter's output when
you are making transmitter adjustments?
A.  A multimeter
B.  A reflectometer
C.  A receiver
D.  A dummy antenna

T4D02 (B)
What is a dummy antenna?
A.  An nondirectional transmitting antenna
B.  A nonradiating load for a transmitter
C.  An antenna used as a reference for gain measurements
D.  A flexible antenna usually used on hand-held transceivers

T4D03 (C)
What is the main component of a dummy antenna?
A.  A wire-wound resistor
B.  An iron-core coil
C.  A noninductive resistor
D.  An air-core coil

T4D04 (B)
What device is used in place of an antenna during transmitter
tests so that no signal is radiated?
A.  An antenna matcher
B.  A dummy antenna
C.  A low-pass filter
D.  A decoupling resistor

T4D05 (A)
Why would you use a dummy antenna?
A.  For off-the-air transmitter testing
B.  To reduce output power
C.  To give comparative signal reports
D.  To allow antenna tuning without causing interference

T4D06 (A)
What minimum rating should a dummy antenna have for use with a
100-watt single-sideband phone transmitter?
A.  100 watts continuous
B.  141 watts continuous
C.  175 watts continuous
D.  200 watts continuous

T4D07 (D)
Why might a dummy antenna get warm when in use?
A.  Because it stores electric current
B.  Because it stores radio waves
C.  Because it absorbs static electricity
D.  Because it changes RF energy into heat

T4D08 (A)
What is used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver?
A.  An S meter
B.  An RST meter
C.  A signal deviation meter
D.  An SSB meter

T4D09 (B)
How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body
tissue?
A.  It causes radiation poisoning
B.  It heats the tissue
C.  It paralyzes the tissue
D.  It produces genetic changes in the tissue

T4D10 (A)
Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the
heating effects of RF radiation?
A.  Eyes
B.  Hands
C.  Heart
D.  Liver

T4D11 (D)
What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum
limits of RF energy near the human body?
A.  The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
B.  The Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
C.  The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
D.  The American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

T4D12 (B)
What is the purpose of the ANSI RF protection guide?
A.  It lists all RF frequency allocations for interference
protection
B.  It gives RF exposure limits for the human body
C.  It sets transmitter power limits for interference protection
D.  It sets antenna height limits for aircraft protection

T4D13 (D)
According to the ANSI RF protection guide, what frequencies cause
us the greatest risk from RF energy?
A.  3 to 30 MHz
B.  300 to 3000 MHz
C.  Above 1500 MHz
D.  30 to 300 MHz

T4D14 (D)
Why is the limit of exposure to RF the lowest in the frequency
range of 30 MHz to 300 MHz, according to the ANSI RF protection
guide?
A.  There are more transmitters operating in this range
B.  There are fewer transmitters operating in this range
C.  Most transmissions in this range are for a longer time
D.  The human body absorbs RF energy the most in this range

T4D15 (B)
According to the ANSI RF protection guide, what is the maximum
safe power output to the antenna of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio?
A.  125 milliwatts
B.  7 watts
C.  10 watts
D.  25 watts

T4D16 (C)
After you have opened a VHF power amplifier to make internal
tuning adjustments, what should you do before you turn the
amplifier on?
A.  Remove all amplifier shielding to ensure maximum cooling
B.  Make sure that the power interlock switch is bypassed so you
can test the amplifier
C.  Be certain all amplifier shielding is fastened in place
D.  Be certain no antenna is attached so that you will not cause
any interference

SUBELEMENT T5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES  [2 exam questions - 2
groups]

T5A  Definition of resistance, inductance, and capacitance and
unit of measurement, calculation of values in series and
parallel.

T5A01 (D)
What does resistance do in an electric circuit?
A.  It stores energy in a magnetic field
B.  It stores energy in an electric field
C.  It provides electrons by a chemical reaction
D.  It opposes the flow of electrons

T5A02 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?
A.  Admittance
B.  Capacitance
C.  Resistance
D.  Inductance

T5A03 (C)
What is the basic unit of inductance?
A.  The coulomb
B.  The farad
C.  The henry
D.  The ohm

T5A04 (C)
What is a henry?
A.  The basic unit of admittance
B.  The basic unit of capacitance
C.  The basic unit of inductance
D.  The basic unit of resistance

T5A05 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?
A.  Inductance
B.  Resistance
C.  Tolerance
D.  Capacitance

T5A06 (A)
What is the basic unit of capacitance?
A.  The farad
B.  The ohm
C.  The volt
D.  The henry

T5A07 (B)
What is a farad?
A.  The basic unit of resistance
B.  The basic unit of capacitance
C.  The basic unit of inductance
D.  The basic unit of admittance

T5A08 (B)
If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is
their total inductance?
A.  Half the value of one inductor
B.  Twice the value of one inductor
C.  The same as the value of either inductor
D.  The value of one inductor times the value of the other

T5A09 (A)
If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is
their total inductance?
A.  Half the value of one inductor
B.  Twice the value of one inductor
C.  The same as the value of either inductor
D.  The value of one inductor times the value of the other

T5A10 (C)
If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is
their total capacitance?
A.  Twice the value of one capacitor
B.  The same as the value of either capacitor
C.  Half the value of either capacitor
D.  The value of one capacitor times the value of the other

T5A11 (A)
If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is
their total capacitance?
A.  Twice the value of one capacitor
B.  Half the value of one capacitor
C.  The same as the value of either capacitor
D.  The value of one capacitor times the value of the other

T5B  Ohm's Law.

T5B01 (D)
Ohm's Law describes the mathematical relationship between what
three electrical quantities?
A.  Resistance, voltage and power
B.  Current, resistance and power
C.  Current, voltage and power
D.  Resistance, current and voltage

T5B02 (C)
How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage
and resistance are known?
A.  I = R x E [current equals resistance multiplied by voltage]
B.  I = R / E [current equals resistance divided by voltage]
C.  I = E / R [current equals voltage divided by resistance]
D.  I = P / E [current equals power divided by voltage]

T5B03 (B)
How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage
and current are known?
A.  R = I / E [resistance equals current divided by voltage]
B.  R = E / I [resistance equals voltage divided by current]
C.  R = I x E [resistance equals current multiplied by voltage]
D.  R = P / E [resistance equals power divided by voltage]

T5B04 (C)
How is the voltage in a DC circuit calculated when the current
and resistance are known?
A.  E = I / R [voltage equals current divided by resistance]
B.  E = R / I [voltage equals resistance divided by current]
C.  E = I x R [voltage equals current multiplied by resistance]
D.  E = P / I [voltage equals power divided by current]

T5B05 (D)
If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 ampere to a circuit, what is
the circuit's resistance?
A.  0.25 ohm
B.  3 ohm
C.  12 ohms
D.  48 ohms

T5B06 (D)
If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.15 ampere to a circuit, what is
the circuit's resistance?
A.  0.15 ohm
B.  1.8 ohm
C.  12 ohms
D.  80 ohms

T5B07 (B)
If a 4800-ohm resistor is connected to 120 volts,
how much current will flow through it?
A.  4 A
B.  25 mA
C.  25 A
D.  40 mA

T5B08 (D)
If a 48000-ohm resistor is connected to 120 volts,
how much current will flow through it?
A.  400 A
B.  40 A
C.  25 mA
D.  2.5 mA

T5B09 (A)
If a 4800-ohm resistor is connected to 12 volts,
how much current will flow through it?
A.  2.5 mA
B.  25 mA
C.  40 A
D.  400 A

T5B10 (A)
If a 48000-ohm resistor is connected to 12 volts,
how much current will flow through it?
A.  250 uA
B.  250 mA
C.  4000 mA
D.  4000 A

T5B11  (A)
If you know the voltage and current supplied to a circuit, what
formula would you use to calculate the circuit's resistance?
A.  Ohm's Law
B.  Tesla's Law
C.  Ampere's Law
D.  Kirchhoff's Law

SUBELEMENT T6 -  CIRCUIT COMPONENTS - [2 Exam Questions - 2
groups]

T6A  Resistors, construction types, variable and fixed, color
code, power ratings, schematic symbols.

T6A01 (B)
Which of the following are common resistor types?
A.  Plastic and porcelain
B.  Film and wire-wound
C.  Electrolytic and metal-film
D.  Iron core and brass core

T6A02 (C)
What does a variable resistor or potentiometer do?
A.  Its resistance changes when AC is applied to it
B.  It transforms a variable voltage into a constant voltage
C.  Its resistance changes when its slide or contact is moved
D.  Its resistance changes when it is heated

T6A03 (B)
How do you find a resistor's tolerance rating?
A.  By using a voltmeter
B.  By reading the resistor's color code
C.  By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
D.  By reading its Baudot code

T6A04 (A)
What do the first three color bands on a resistor indicate?
A.  The value of the resistor in ohms
B.  The resistance tolerance in percent
C.  The power rating in watts
D.  The resistance material

T6A05 (B)
What does the fourth color band on a resistor indicate?
A.  The value of the resistor in ohms
B.  The resistance tolerance in percent
C.  The power rating in watts
D.  The resistance material

T6A06 (A)
Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use?
A.  Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat
B.  Their reactance makes them heat up
C.  Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up
D.  They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot

T6A07 (C)
Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one
of the same resistance?
A.  For better response time
B.  For a higher current gain
C.  For greater power dissipation
D.  For less impedance in the circuit

T6A08  (C)
What are the possible values of a 100-ohm resistor with a 10%
tolerance?
A.  90 to 100 ohms
B.  10 to 100 ohms
C.  90 to 110 ohms
D.  80 to 120 ohms

T6A09  (B)
How do you find a resistor's value?
A.  By using a voltmeter
B.  By using the resistor's color code
C.  By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
D.  By using the Baudot code

T6A10  (A)
Which tolerance rating would a high-quality resistor have?
A.  0.1%
B.  5%
C.  10%
D.  20%

T6A11  (D)
Which tolerance rating would a low-quality resistor have?
A.  0.1%
B.  5%
C.  10%
D.  20%

T6B  Schematic symbols - inductors and capacitors, construction
of variable and fixed, factors affecting inductance and
capacitance, capacitor construction.

T6B01 (D)
What is an inductor core?
A.  The place where a coil is tapped for resonance
B.  A tight coil of wire used in a transformer
C.  Insulating material placed between the wires of a transformer
D.  The place inside an inductor where its magnetic field is
concentrated

T6B02 (C)
What does an inductor do?
A.  It stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a change in
voltage
B.  It stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change in
current
C.  It stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change
in current
D.  It stores a charge electromechanically and opposes a change
in voltage

T6B03 (D)
What determines the inductance of a coil?
A.  The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil
and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically
B.  The core diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind
the coil and the type of metal used for the wire
C.  The core material, the number of turns used to wind the core
and the frequency of the current through the coil
D.  The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil
and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil

T6B04 (A)
As an iron core is inserted in a coil, what happens to the coil's
inductance?
A.  It increases
B.  It decreases
C.  It stays the same
D.  It disappears

T6B05 (A)
What can happen if you tune a ferrite-core coil with a metal
tool?
A.  The metal tool can change the coil's inductance and cause you
to tune the coil incorrectly
B.  The metal tool can become magnetized so much that you might
not be able to remove it from the coil
C.  The metal tool can pick up enough magnetic energy to become
very hot
D.  The metal tool can pick up enough magnetic energy to become a
shock hazard

T6B06 (B)
In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an adjustable inductor?
A.  Symbol 1
B.  Symbol 2
C.  Symbol 3
D.  Symbol 4

T6B07 (D)
In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an iron-core inductor?
A.  Symbol 1
B.  Symbol 2
C.  Symbol 3
D.  Symbol 4

T6B08 (D)
In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an inductor wound over a
toroidal core?
A.  Symbol 1
B.  Symbol 2
C.  Symbol 3
D.  Symbol 4

T6B09 (A)
In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an electrolytic capacitor?
A.  Symbol 1
B.  Symbol 2
C.  Symbol 3
D.  Symbol 4

T6B10 (C)
In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents a variable capacitor?
A.  Symbol 1
B.  Symbol 2
C.  Symbol 3
D.  Symbol 4

T6B11 (C)
What describes a capacitor?
A.  Two or more layers of silicon material with an insulating
material between them
B.  The wire used in the winding and the core material
C.  Two or more conductive plates with an insulating material
between them
D.  Two or more insulating plates with a conductive material
between them

T6B12 (B)
What does a capacitor do?
A.  It stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change in
current
B.  It stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a change in
voltage
C.  It stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change
in current
D.  It stores a charge electromechanically and opposes a change
in voltage

T6B13 (A)
What determines the capacitance of a capacitor?
A.  The material between the plates, the area of one side of one
plate, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates
B.  The material between the plates, the number of plates and the
size of the wires connected to the plates
C.  The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and
whether the dielectric material is N type or P type
D.  The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the
number of plates and the material used for the protective coating

T6B14 (B)
As the plate area of a capacitor is increased, what happens to
its capacitance?
A.  It decreases
B.  It increases
C.  It stays the same
D.  It disappears

SUBELEMENT T7 -  PRACTICAL CIRCUITS - [1 exam question - 1 group]

T7A  Practical circuits.

T7A01 (C)
Why do modern HF transmitters have a built-in low-pass filter in
their RF output circuits?
A.  To reduce RF energy below a cutoff point
B.  To reduce low-frequency interference to other amateurs
C.  To reduce harmonic radiation
D.  To reduce fundamental radiation

T7A02 (A)
What circuit blocks RF energy above and below a certain limit?
A.  A band-pass filter
B.  A high-pass filter
C.  An input filter
D.  A low-pass filter

T7A03 (A)
What type of filter is used in the IF section of receivers to
block energy outside a certain frequency range?
A.  A band-pass filter
B.  A high-pass filter
C.  An input filter
D.  A low-pass filter

T7A04 (C)
What circuit is found in all types of receivers?
A.  An audio filter
B.  A beat-frequency oscillator
C.  A detector
D.  An RF amplifier

T7A05 (D)
What circuit has a variable-frequency oscillator connected to a
driver and a power amplifier?
A.  A packet-radio transmitter
B.  A crystal-controlled transmitter
C.  A single-sideband transmitter
D.  A VFO-controlled transmitter

T7A06 (B)
What circuit combines signals from an IF amplifier stage and a
beat-frequency oscillator (BFO), to produce an audio signal?
A.  An AGC circuit
B.  A detector circuit
C.  A power supply circuit
D.  A VFO circuit

T7A07 (D)
What circuit uses a limiter and a frequency discriminator to
produce an audio signal?
A.  A double-conversion receiver
B.  A variable-frequency oscillator
C.  A superheterodyne receiver
D.  An FM receiver

T7A08 (D)
What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-1 if block 1 is a variable-
frequency oscillator?
A.  A packet-radio transmitter
B.  A crystal-controlled transmitter
C.  A single-sideband transmitter
D.  A VFO-controlled transmitter

T7A09 (B)
What is the unlabeled block in Figure T7-2?
A.  An AGC circuit
B.  A detector
C.  A power supply
D.  A VFO circuit

T7A10 (D)
What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-3?
A.  A double-conversion receiver
B.  A variable-frequency oscillator
C.  A superheterodyne receiver
D.  An FM receiver

T7A11 (C)
What is the unlabeled block in Figure T7-4?
A.  A band-pass filter
B.  A crystal oscillator
C.  A reactance modulator
D.  A rectifier modulator

SUBELEMENT T8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS  [2 exam questions - 2
groups]

T8A  Definition of modulation and emission types.

T8A01 (B)
What is the name for unmodulated carrier wave emissions?
A.  Phone
B.  Test
C.  CW
D.  RTTY

T8A02 (C)
What is the name for Morse code emissions produced by switching a
transmitter's output on and off?
A.  Phone
B.  Test
C.  CW
D.  RTTY

T8A03 (B)
What is RTTY?
A.  Amplitude-keyed telegraphy
B.  Frequency-shift-keyed telegraphy
C.  Frequency-modulated telephony
D.  Phase-modulated telephony

T8A04 (B)
What is the name for packet-radio emissions?
A.  CW
B.  Data
C.  Phone
D.  RTTY

T8A05 (D)
How is tone-modulated Morse code produced?
A.  By feeding a microphone's audio signal into an FM transmitter
B.  By feeding an on/off keyed audio tone into a CW transmitter
C.  By on/off keying of a carrier
D.  By feeding an on/off keyed audio tone into a transmitter

T8A06 (D)
What is the name of the voice emission most used on VHF/UHF
repeaters?
A.  Single-sideband phone
B.  Pulse-modulated phone
C.  Slow-scan phone
D.  Frequency-modulated phone

T8A07 (A)
What is the name of the voice emission most used on amateur HF
bands?
A.  Single-sideband phone
B.  Pulse-modulated phone
C.  Slow-scan phone
D.  Frequency-modulated phone

T8A08 (A)
What is meant by the upper-sideband (USB)?
A.  The part of a single-sideband signal which is above the
carrier frequency
B.  The part of a single-sideband signal which is below the
carrier frequency
C.  Any frequency above 10 MHz
D.  The carrier frequency of a single-sideband signal

T8A09 (D)
What emissions are produced by a transmitter using a reactance
modulator?
A.  CW
B.  Test
C.  Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier phone
D.  Phase-modulated phone

T8A10 (C)
What other emission does phase modulation most resemble?
A.  Amplitude modulation
B.  Pulse modulation
C.  Frequency modulation
D.  Single-sideband modulation

T8A11  (B)
What is the name for emissions produced by an on/off keyed audio
tone?
A.  RTTY
B.  MCW
C.  CW
D.  Phone

T8B  RF carrier, modulation, bandwidth and deviation.

T8B01 (A)
What is another name for a constant-amplitude radio-frequency
signal?
A.  An RF carrier
B.  An AF carrier
C.  A sideband carrier
D.  A subcarrier

T8B02 (A)
What is modulation?
A.  Varying a radio wave in some way to send information
B.  Receiving audio information from a signal
C.  Increasing the power of a transmitter
D.  Suppressing the carrier in a single-sideband transmitter

T8B03 (A)
What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its
microphone failed to work?
A.  An unmodulated carrier
B.  A phase-modulated carrier
C.  An amplitude-modulated carrier
D.  A frequency-modulated carrier

T8B04 (B)
How would you modulate a 2-meter FM transceiver to produce
packet-radio emissions?
A.  Connect a terminal-node controller to interrupt the
transceiver's carrier wave
B.  Connect a terminal-node controller to the transceiver's
microphone input
C.  Connect a keyboard to the transceiver's microphone input
D.  Connect a DTMF key pad to the transceiver's microphone input

T8B05 (C)
Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF radio communications?
A.  The carrier is not detectable
B.  It is more resistant to distortion caused by reflected
signals
C.  It has high-fidelity audio which can be understood even when
the signal is somewhat weak
D.  Its RF carrier stays on frequency better than the AM modes

T8B06 (D)
Why do many radio receivers have several IF filters of different
bandwidths that can be selected by the operator?
A.  Because some frequency bands are wider than others
B.  Because different bandwidths help increase the receiver
sensitivity
C.  Because different bandwidths improve S-meter readings
D.  Because some emission types need a wider bandwidth than
others to be received properly

T8B07 (C)
Which list of emission types is in order from the narrowest
bandwidth to the widest bandwidth?
A.  RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice
B.  CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice
C.  CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice
D.  CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice

T8B08 (D)
What is the usual bandwidth of a single-sideband amateur signal?
A.  1 kHz
B.  2 kHz
C.  Between 3 and 6 kHz
D.  Between 2 and 3 kHz

T8B09 (C)
What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur
signal?
A.  Less than 5 kHz
B.  Between 5 and 10 kHz
C.  Between 10 and 20 kHz
D.  Greater than 20 kHz

T8B10 (B)
What is the result of overdeviation in an FM transmitter?
A.  Increased transmitter power
B.  Out-of-channel emissions
C.  Increased transmitter range
D.  Poor carrier suppression

T8B11 (C)
What causes splatter interference?
A.  Keying a transmitter too fast
B.  Signals from a transmitter's output circuit are being sent
back to its input circuit
C.  Overmodulation of a transmitter
D.  The transmitting antenna is the wrong length

SUBELEMENT T9 -  ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES  [3 exam questions - 3
groups]

T9A  Parasitic beam and non-directional antennas.

T9A01 (C)
What is a directional antenna?
A.  An antenna which sends and receives radio energy equally well
in all directions
B.  An antenna that cannot send and receive radio energy by
skywave or skip propagation
C.  An antenna which sends and receives radio energy mainly in
one direction
D.  An antenna which sends and receives radio energy equally well
in two opposite directions

T9A02 (A)
How is a Yagi antenna constructed?
A.  Two or more straight, parallel elements are fixed in line
with each other
B.  Two or more square or circular loops are fixed in line with
each other
C.  Two or more square or circular loops are stacked inside each
other
D.  A straight element is fixed in the center of three or more
elements which angle toward the ground

T9A03 (C)
What type of beam antenna uses two or more straight elements
arranged in line with each other?
A.  A delta loop antenna
B.  A quad antenna
C.  A Yagi antenna
D.  A Zepp antenna

T9A04 (B)
How many directly driven elements do most beam antennas have?
A.  None
B.  One
C.  Two
D.  Three

T9A05 (A)
What is a parasitic beam antenna?
A.  An antenna where some elements obtain their radio energy by
induction or radiation from a driven element
B.  An antenna where wave traps are used to magnetically couple
the elements
C.  An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection
to the feed line
D.  An antenna where the driven element obtains its radio energy
by induction or radiation from director elements

T9A06 (D)
What are the parasitic elements of a Yagi antenna?
A.  The driven element and any reflectors
B.  The director and the driven element
C.  Only the reflectors (if any)
D.  Any directors or any reflectors

T9A07 (B)
What is a cubical quad antenna?
A.  Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other,
each approximately 1/2-electrical wavelength long
B.  Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each
approximately one-electrical wavelength long
C.  A vertical conductor 1/4-electrical wavelength high, fed at
the bottom
D.  A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical wavelength long

T9A08 (A)
What is a delta loop antenna?
A.  A type of cubical quad antenna, except with triangular
elements rather than square
B.  A large copper ring or wire loop, used in direction finding
C.  An antenna system made of three vertical antennas, arranged
in a triangular shape
D.  An antenna made from several triangular coils of wire on an
insulating form

T9A09 (D)
What type of non-directional antenna is easy to make at home and
works well outdoors?
A.  A Yagi
B.  A delta loop
C.  A cubical quad
D.  A ground plane

T9A10 (D)
What type of antenna is made when a magnetic-base whip antenna is
placed on the roof of a car?
A.  A Yagi
B.  A delta loop
C.  A cubical quad
D.  A ground plane

T9A11 (A)
If a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car,
in what direction does it send out radio energy?
A.  It goes out equally well in all horizontal directions
B.  Most of it goes in one direction
C.  Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions
D.  Most of it is aimed high into the air

T9B  Polarization, impedance matching and SWR, feed lines,
balanced vs unbalanced (including baluns).

T9B01 (B)
What does horizontal wave polarization mean?
A.  The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to
the earth's surface
B.  The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to
the earth's surface
C.  The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular
to the earth's surface
D.  The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are
perpendicular to the earth's surface

T9B02 (C)
What does vertical wave polarization mean?
A.  The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to
the earth's surface
B.  The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular
to the earth's surface
C.  The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular
to the earth's surface
D.  The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are
parallel to the earth's surface

T9B03 (C)
What electromagnetic-wave polarization does a Yagi antenna have
when its elements are parallel to the earth's surface?
A.  Circular
B.  Helical
C.  Horizontal
D.  Vertical

T9B04 (D)
What electromagnetic-wave polarization does a half-wavelength
antenna have when it is perpendicular to the earth's surface?
A.  Circular
B.  Horizontal
C.  Parabolical
D.  Vertical

T9B05 (D)
What electromagnetic-wave polarization does most man-made
electrical noise have in the HF and VHF spectrum?
A.  Horizontal
B.  Left-hand circular
C.  Right-hand circular
D.  Vertical

T9B06 (D)
What does standing-wave ratio mean?
A.  The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a feed line
B.  The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a feed line
C.  The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a feed line
D.  The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line

T9B07 (A)
What does forward power mean?
A.  The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna
B.  The power radiated from the top of an antenna system
C.  The power produced during the positive half of an RF cycle
D.  The power used to drive a linear amplifier

T9B08 (B)
What does reflected power mean?
A.  The power radiated down to the ground from an antenna
B.  The power returned to a transmitter from an antenna
C.  The power produced during the negative half of an RF cycle
D.  The power returned to an antenna by buildings and trees

T9B09 (C)
What happens to radio energy when it is sent through a poor
quality coaxial cable?
A.  It causes spurious emissions
B.  It is returned to the transmitter's chassis ground
C.  It is converted to heat in the cable
D.  It causes interference to other stations near the
transmitting frequency

T9B10 (C)
What is an unbalanced line?
A.  Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground
B.  Feed line with both conductors connected to ground
C.  Feed line with one conductor connected to ground
D.  Feed line with both conductors connected to each other

T9B11 (A)
What device can be installed to feed a balanced antenna with an
unbalanced feed line?
A.  A balun
B.  A loading coil
C.  A triaxial transformer
D.  A wavetrap

T9C  Line losses by line type, length and frequency, RF safety.

T9C01 (B)
What common connector usually joins RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF
transceiver?
A.  An F-type cable connector
B.  A PL-259 connector
C.  A banana plug connector
D.  A binding post connector

T9C02 (A)
What common connector usually joins a hand-held transceiver to
its antenna?
A.  A BNC connector
B.  A PL-259 connector
C.  An F-type cable connector
D.  A binding post connector

T9C03 (B)
Which of these common connectors has the lowest loss at UHF?
A.  An F-type cable connector
B.  A type-N connector
C.  A BNC connector
D.  A PL-259 connector

T9C04 (A)
If you install a 6-meter Yagi antenna on a tower 150 feet from
your transmitter, which of the following feed lines is best?
A.  RG-213
B.  RG-58
C.  RG-59
D.  RG-174

T9C05 (C)
If you have a transmitter and an antenna which are 50 feet apart,
but are connected by 200 feet of RG-58 coaxial cable, what should
be done to reduce feed line loss?
A.  Cut off the excess cable so the feed line is an even number
of wavelengths long
B.  Cut off the excess cable so the feed line is an odd number of
wavelengths long
C.  Cut off the excess cable
D.  Roll the excess cable into a coil which is as small as
possible

T9C06 (B)
As the length of a feed line is changed, what happens to signal
loss?
A.  Signal loss is the same for any length of feed line
B.  Signal loss increases as length increases
C.  Signal loss decreases as length increases
D.  Signal loss is the least when the length is the same as the
signal's wavelength

T9C07 (B)
As the frequency of a signal is changed, what happens to signal
loss in a feed line?
A.  Signal loss is the same for any frequency
B.  Signal loss increases with increasing frequency
C.  Signal loss increases with decreasing frequency
D.  Signal loss is the least when the signal's wavelength is the
same as the feed line's length

T9C08 (D)
If your antenna feed line gets hot when you are transmitting,
what might this mean?
A.  You should transmit using less power
B.  The conductors in the feed line are not insulated very well
C.  The feed line is too long
D.  The SWR may be too high, or the feed line loss may be high

T9C09 (D)
Why should you make sure that no one can touch an open-wire feed
line while you are transmitting with it?
A.  Because contact might cause a short circuit and damage the
transmitter
B.  Because contact might break the feed line
C.  Because contact might cause spurious emissions
D.  Because high-voltage radio energy might burn the person

T9C10 (C)
For RF safety, what is the best thing to do with your
transmitting antennas?
A.  Use vertical polarization
B.  Use horizontal polarization
C.  Mount the antennas where no one can come near them
D.  Mount the antenna close to the ground

T9C11 (A)
Why should you regularly clean, tighten and re-solder all antenna
connectors?
A.  To help keep their resistance at a minimum
B.  To keep them looking nice
C.  To keep them from getting stuck in place
D.  To increase their capacitance


Answers

T1A01  D
T1A02  B
T1A03  A
T1A04  A
T1A05  C
T1A06  C
T1A07  B
T1A08  A
T1A09  B
T1A10  D
T1A11  C
T1B01  C
T1B02  D
T1B03  B
T1B04  C
T1B05  D
T1B06  C
T1B07  A
T1B08  B
T1B09  A
T1B10  D
T1B11  A
T1C01  A
T1C02  C
T1C03  D
T1C04  B
T1C05  C
T1C06  C
T1C07  B
T1C08  A
T1C09  D
T1C10  B
T1C11  C
T1D01  A
T1D02  B
T1D03  C
T1D04  C
T1D05  B
T1D06  A
T1D07  D
T1D08  A
T1D09  C
T1D10  D
T1D11  B
T1E01  A
T1E02  B
T1E03  D
T1E04  B
T1E05  D
T1E06  C
T1E07  C
T1E08  D
T1E09  A
T1E10  A
T1E11  C
T2A01  B
T2A02  C
T2A03  A
T2A04  D
T2A05  B
T2A06  B
T2A07  D
T2A08  B
T2A09  A
T2A10  C
T2A11  A
T2A12  A
T2A13  C
T2A14  D
T2A15  A
T2A16  A
T2A17  B
T2A18  C
T2B01  C
T2B02  A
T2B03  C
T2B04  D
T2B05  C
T2B06  A
T2B07  B
T2B08  B
T2B09  A
T2B10  C
T2B11  D
T2C01  A
T2C02  D
T2C03  A
T2C04  C
T2C05  A
T2C06  D
T2C07  B
T2C08  D
T2C09  B
T2C10  B
T2C11  C
T2C12  C
T3A01  A
T3A02  D
T3A03  A
T3A04  C
T3A05  A
T3A06  B
T3A07  B
T3A08  A
T3A09  D
T3A10  B
T3A11  C
T3B01  D
T3B02  B
T3B03  A
T3B04  B
T3B05  D
T3B06  C
T3B07  A
T3B08  B
T3B09  A
T3B10  C
T3B11  A
T3C01  C
T3C02  C
T3C03  B
T3C04  C
T3C05  A
T3C06  D
T3C07  B
T3C08  D
T3C09  D
T3C10  A
T3C11  D
T4A01  C
T4A02  D
T4A03  B
T4A04  D
T4A05  C
T4A06  D
T4A07  B
T4A08  A
T4A09  A
T4A10  A
T4A11  A
T4A12  C
T4A13  B
T4A14  C
T4A15  B
T4B01  B
T4B02  C
T4B03  A
T4B04  A
T4B05  D
T4B06  D
T4B07  A
T4B08  B
T4B09  A
T4B10  B
T4B11  C
T4C01  A
T4C02  A
T4C03  D
T4C04  B
T4C05  C
T4C06  C
T4C07  B
T4C08  D
T4C09  A
T4C10  A
T4C11  C
T4D01  D
T4D02  B
T4D03  C
T4D04  B
T4D05  A
T4D06  A
T4D07  D
T4D08  A
T4D09  B
T4D10  A
T4D11  D
T4D12  B
T4D13  D
T4D14  D
T4D15  B
T4D16  C
T5A01  D
T5A02  D
T5A03  C
T5A04  C
T5A05  D
T5A06  A
T5A07  B
T5A08  B
T5A09  A
T5A10  C
T5A11  A
T5B01  D
T5B02  C
T5B03  B
T5B04  C
T5B05  D
T5B06  D
T5B07  B
T5B08  D
T5B09  A
T5B10  A
T5B11  A
T6A01  B
T6A02  C
T6A03  B
T6A04  A
T6A05  B
T6A06  A
T6A07  C
T6A08  C
T6A09  B
T6A10  A
T6A11  D
T6B01  D
T6B02  C
T6B03  D
T6B04  A
T6B05  A
T6B06  B
T6B07  D
T6B08  D
T6B09  A
T6B10  C
T6B11  C
T6B12  B
T6B13  A
T6B14  B
T7A01  C
T7A02  A
T7A03  A
T7A04  C
T7A05  D
T7A06  B
T7A07  D
T7A08  D
T7A09  B
T7A10  D
T7A11  C
T8A01  B
T8A02  C
T8A03  B
T8A04  B
T8A05  D
T8A06  D
T8A07  A
T8A08  A
T8A09  D
T8A10  C
T8A11  B
T8B01  A
T8B02  A
T8B03  A
T8B04  B
T8B05  C
T8B06  D
T8B07  C
T8B08  D
T8B09  C
T8B10  B
T8B11  C
T9A01  C
T9A02  A
T9A03  C
T9A04  B
T9A05  A
T9A06  D
T9A07  B
T9A08  A
T9A09  D
T9A10  D
T9A11  A
T9B01  B
T9B02  C
T9B03  C
T9B04  D
T9B05  D
T9B06  D
T9B07  A
T9B08  B
T9B09  C
T9B10  C
T9B11  A
T9C01  B
T9C02  A
T9C03  B
T9C04  A
T9C05  C
T9C06  B
T9C07  B
T9C08  D
T9C09  D
T9C10  C
T9C11  A